CDS Details

CDS Details: 

As soon as we complete our graduation course, a big question arises in front of us what next? A post graduate degree in your subject of graduation, a UPSC or an MBA is the option that comes to mind.

But have you ever had feeling to serve the Nation with dignity and high values?  A job / a career with a difference, and high return values in terms of social and economic. Defence services are the best for you, and the most prestigious services are now a days are Army, Navy and Air Force. CDS is the gateway to join these most admired and respectful jobs. Think about it???

What can be more fulfilling than working for your country and making a real difference to the lives of people, protecting civilians and feeling a sense of accomplishment that stays with you throughout your life?

UPSC gives you opportunity to join it through CDS. CDS Exam is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission twice in a year for recruitment to the Army, Navy and Air force.

 “CDS” is an acronym for “Combined Defence Services” Examination. The Combined Defence Services Examination (CDSE) is conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for recruitment into the Indian Military Academy (IMA), officers Training Academy (OTA), Indian Naval Academy (INA) and Air Force Academy (AFA). it is a Two-Step process where candidates first need to take the exam and then qualify the SSB interview conducted by the Service Selection Board.

Candidates those are planning to take the exam should fill the application form before the last date and start preparation of CDS exam. The UPSC is solely responsible for issuing guidelines for selection and the final conduct of the entrance examination.

Officer’s recruitment is advertised through Employment News and all important national and regional newspapers/dailies. and also, at UPSC official website. UPSC’s official website is– www.upsc.gov.in and applications for CDS exam are invited online at: https://upsconline.nic.in

Eligibility criteria

Eligibility criteria:

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

Educational Qualifications

Educational Qualifications:

(i) For I.M.A.(Army) and Officers’ Training Academy (OTA), Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.

 (ii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.

(iii) For Indian Naval Academy (Navy)—Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.

Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.

Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog up-to the last semester / year for which results have been declared up-to the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army) New Delhi, in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR”, New Delhi, in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, New Delhi in case of Air Force first choice candidates.

Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

Note I: Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.

Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

Note II: Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.

Note III: In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation / Ground Duty (Non-Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.

Nationality

Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried male and must be:

(i) a citizen of India, or

(ii) a subject of Bhutan, or

(iii) a subject of Nepal, or

(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

Age, Gender, Marital Status

Age, Gender, Marital Status:

(i) For Indian Military Academy (IMA-army) —Unmarried male candidates aged between 19 – 24 years (at the time of commencement of course) – In every notification a particular age criterion from particular Date+Month+Year is given, so your birth date must me fall in between that span.

(ii) For Indian Naval Academy (INA)—Unmarried male candidates aged between 19 – 24 years (at the time of commencement of course) – In every notification a particular age criterion from particular Date+Month+Year is given, so your birth date must me fall in between that span.

(iii) For Air Force Academy (AFA)— 20 to 24 years - In every notification a particular age criterion from particular Date+Month+Year is given, so your birth date must me fall in between that span.

(Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relax able up to 26 yrs. only are eligible.

Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.

(iv) For Officers' Training Academy— (SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates aged between 19 – 24 years (at the time of commencement of course) – In every notification a particular age criterion from particular Date+Month+Year is given, so your birth date must me fall in between that span.

(v) For Officers' Training Academy— (SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have aged between 19 – 24 years (at the time of commencement of course) – In every notification a particular age criterion from particular Date+Month+Year is given, so your birth date must me fall in between that span.

Note: Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and therefore they are not eligible for these courses. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation /Secondary School Examination Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted at any circumstances.

The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.

Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months format. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to self-attested/certified copy of Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate a self-attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.

Note: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

Note: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.

Note: The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

Physical fitness

Physical fitness:

Guidelines with regard to Physical Standards for Candidates for Combined

Defence Services Examination.

Note-I: Candidates must be physically and mentally fit according to the prescribed physical standards. Medical fitness criteria given below are as per existing guidelines as on the date of publication and these guidelines are subject to revision.

A number of qualified candidates are rejected subsequently on medical grounds. All candidates are, therefore advised in their own interest to get themselves medically examined before submitting their applications to avoid disappointment at the final stage.

Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects /ailments in order to speed up finalization of medical examinations conducted at the Military Hospital after being recommended by SSBs.

Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below: -

(i) Wax (ears)

(ii) Deviated Nasal Septum

(iii) Hydrocele/Varicocele/Phimosis

(iv) Overweight/Underweight

(v) Piles and

(vi) Gynaecomastia

Note-II: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis.

Commandant Selection Centre will be competent authority for clearing such cases.

Note: A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Women candidates will undergo Medical Examination by a Medical Board comprising male/female doctors/specialists/Gynaecologist. There will be a Lady Medical Officer as Member of Board. Only those candidates will be admitted to the Academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) will also be intimated to the candidate.

Note: Candidates who are unfit may apply for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed within 42 days of SMB and may request for Review Medical Board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. Candidates declared unfit by AMB will be intimated by the President AMB about procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that holding Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right.

Note: The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards which are summarized below:

(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate should not be overweight or obese.

Height:

The minimum acceptable height for male candidates is 157.5 cms. (157 cms for Navy and 162.5 cms for Air Force).

For Women candidates minimum acceptable height is 152 cms.

For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern region of India, Garhwali and Kumaon, the Minimum acceptable height will be 5 cms less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms.

NOTE: To meet special requirement as a pilot in the Air Force the acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height will be as under:

Height 162.5 cms.

Weight: Average weight of male is considering around 44 kg to 81 kgs.

Average weight of female is considering around 39 kg to 54 kgs.

According to height and age of candidate. Individual’s weight is considered normal if it is within ±10% departure from average weight.

Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less than 81 cms. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.

NOTE: A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.

Visual Standards:

Eyes and Vision standards:

Should have: -

(1) Objective Convergence. It should be ≤ 10 cm.

(2) Accommodation. It should be ≤ 12 cm

(3) Binocular Single Vision (BSV). It should be at least grade-III

(4) Visual Fields. Should be complete.

(5) Vision:

Visual Standards for Air Force:

Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force.

Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in other correctable to 6/6 only for

Maddox Rod Test

Vision Standards for Naval Candidates:

Note: The following ocular diseases will make a candidate unfit:

(a) Ptosis.

(b) Corneal Opacity.

(c) Pterygium.

(d) Lenticular opacity.

(e) Uveitis.

(f) Nystagmus.

(g) Entropion/Ectropion.

(h) Squint.

(j) Night blindness.

(k) Retinal lesions.

(l) Naso-Lacrimal occlusion.

Note: Vision Correction: Radial Keratotomy is not acceptable. Laser Surgery for correction of visual defects should not have been done earlier than 20 years of age on the date of operation, and also within one-year period of reporting for medical examination. Photo Refractive Keratotomy (PRK) and LASIK (Laser in Situ Kerotomileusis) are not permitted for Navy GS(X) and Hydro entry.

Hearing: The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat. There is no impediment of speech.

Note: In your own interest you are advised to undergo a preliminary medical check-up for wax in ears, refractory error of eyes, fungal infection of skin etc. before reporting for the SSB interview.

NOTE: The following are usual causes for rejection, the list is not exhaustive and Medical Board is the final authority on fitness.

(i) Sinus, fistulae and hernia, cyst, hyper/hypo pigmented patches, swelling, naevus, vascular malformations scars anywhere on the body.

(ii) Head and neck: Muscolo-skeletal deformities which can interfere in using safety gear, cervical rib.

(iii) Chest. Musculoskeletal deformities viz pectus excavatum, pigeon chest, rickety rosary, pleural effusion, parenchymal lesions of lungs, active or residual lesions of tuberculosis.

(iv) Abdomen and reproductive system: Hernia, organomegaly, vascular deformities. Renal deformities, gall stones, renal tones etc. Deformities of reproductive system.

(v) Upper limbs, lower limbs and spine: Hyper flexible or restricted movements of joints, Cubitus valgus, Cubitus Varus, genu recurvatum, deformities of hands and feet, kyphosis, scoliosis, congenital deformities, like spina bifida etc.

(vi) Skin: Vitiligo, scars, vascular malformations chronic skin diseases.

Note: Medical Examination of Female Candidates. General methods and principles of medical examination of female candidates will be the same as for male candidates. However, special points pertaining to medical examination of female candidates are given in succeeding paragraphs. A detailed menstrual and gynaecological history in the form of a questionnaire is to be obtained from the candidate. A detailed physical and systemic examination will be carried out of the candidate and she should be examined by a lady Medical Officer or a lady Gynaecologist or male medical officer in the presence of female attendant.

There many examinations for female candidates which will leads to unfit, so please thoroughly go through the Notification and get examine yourself to avoid any problem at the time of final selection.  

IMP NOTE: there are many more MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR CDS, it is advice to you refer notification for full details, before final conclusion. 

Selection Procedure

Selection Procedure:

Selection in CDS is consisting of many stages from filling application form to selection for training and appointment. The selection process comprises of the following main phases:

•        Written Examination

•        Interview and Personality Test

•        Medical Fitness Test

At the first stage, candidates are shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the written examination. Such candidates are called for the Interview and Personality Test round. Those who get through the Interview/Personality Test round have to undergo a medical fitness test. Document verification is done after the medical test.

CDS Written Exam pattern

CDS Written Exam pattern:

Candidates who will appear in the CDS examination should check the exam pattern for better preparations. The detailed CDS exam pattern is mentioned below:

•        Type of Questions: There will be objective type questions (MCQ) asked in the examination.

•        Pattern: The question paper will be asked in the OMR pattern.

•        Mode: The exam will be conducted in pen and paper-based mode.

•        Answering Mode: Candidates will use black ball pen to mark their answers. Do not use any Ink pen or pencil.

•        Duration: Two hours will be given for each paper i.e. Elementary mathematics, English General Knowledge.

•        Language: The medium of the exam will be set bilingually in English as well as Hindi.

•        Negative Marking: 0.33 % marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.

For Indian Military Academy, Air Force Academy and Indian Naval Academy, the exam pattern is as follows:

For Officers’ Training Academy, the exam pattern is as follows:

Note: Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.

The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.

The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

Intelligence and Personality Test

Intelligence and Personality Test:

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:

(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception & Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.

(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist.

Note: The details of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.

There is no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly, candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.

Syllabus and Standard

Syllabus and Standard:

Standard: The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University.

English: It will include questions on vocabulary, Grammar, Fill in the blank questions, Ordering of Sentence, Comprehension Questions, Synonyms & Antonyms, Selecting Words, Spotting Errors Questions and Sentence Arrangement, Sentence correction and Finding errors and omissions, and Jumbled sentences.

General Knowledge: Indian History, Indian Geography, Indian Politics, Indian Economy, Indian Constitution, Indian Navy & Military, Taxation, Banking Sector, Latest Current Affairs, Books & Authors, Sports, Awards General Science etc.

Elementary Mathematics:

ARITHMETIC

Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.

Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.

ALGEBRA

Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.

TRIGONOMETRY

Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°

Simple trigonometric identities.

Use of trigonometric tables.

Simple cases of heights and distances.

GEOMETRY

Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.

MENSURATION

Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.

STATISTICS

Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.

FAQs

FAQs:

Q: When application forms are available for CDS?

A: CDS form are available online twice in a year, around June and October.

Q. When will admit card be issued to candidates?

A: e-admit cards for the CDS exam will be issued 3 weeks before the examination.

Q. I am an arts graduate. Am I eligible for Air Force Academy?

A: No, you are not eligible for this post. Only those candidates, who have completed engineering course or graduation (with mathematics and Physics at 10+2 level) are eligible for this post. But you can apply for IMA.

Suggestions for preparation

Suggestions for preparation:

Better preparation plays a vital role to score well in the examination. One can check below some good NDA preparation tips:

Firstly, candidates have to make a smart study plan. Gather all the details about prescribed syllabus and exam pattern.

Get ready with a good time table for exam preparations and prepare all the subjects, with determinations.

Solve previous year question papers it will help you to know more about the exam pattern, for more practice you can solve mock papers or a test series to evaluate your preparation.

Practice Mathematics questions daily.

Develop a habit of reading newspapers, magazines, informative blogs, etc. to improve vocabulary, understanding of the English language, and stay updated with current events.

Use the new words you learn in daily communication. This will improve your communication skills for the interview round.

Make notes while studying and revise them frequently at the time of preparations.

Point out your weak area and work hard to make them strong or up to the mark.

Candidates should ensure that they are both physically and mentally fit. It is advised to undergo a full body check-up before appearing for the exam. Regular exercise and healthy eating must be practised to be in good shape and don’t take stress of preparations of exam at any stage.

CDS Exam Cut Off

CDS Exam Cut Off 2019

UPSC will release the official CDS cut off along with the declaration of CDS Result. The CDS cut-off is released separately for the courses conducted by IMA, INA, AFA and OTA(M/F). The written exam of CDS is of total 300 marks and each section is 100 marks. The minimum qualifying marks of each section are 20% of the total marks. According to this, so it is compulsory for candidates to score a minimum of 60 marks to qualify the exam. However, the merit list is prepared on the basis of cut off marks. Candidates are need to score above the minimum qualifying marks to get a good rank in the merit list.

Previous Years Cut off marks of CDS Examinations

CDS Cut Off Original: Aspirants can download original cut off provided by CDS by clicking on the following links:

How to Apply

How to Apply:

# Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the below Detailed instructions are available on the above-mentioned website.

# The Commission has introduced the facility of withdrawal of Application for those candidates who do not want to appear for the Examination. In this regard, Instructions are mentioned below.

# Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/SSB.

# The applicants are advised to submit only single application; however, if due to any unavoidable situation, if he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application with the higher RID (Registration ID) is complete in all respects like applicants' details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.

# The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC website (upsconline.nic.in) for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.

Instruction to the Candidates for Filling Online Application:

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.nic.in. Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given hereunder:

 Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above-mentioned website.

 Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.

 The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees two hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or by using any Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.

 Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/SSB.

 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and signature.

 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photo identity card document in PDF format only. The digital size of PDF file should not exceed 300 KB and must not be less than 20 KB.

 Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.

 In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.

 The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.

 The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the email addresses ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.

 Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of online application. Moreover, the Commission has introduced provision of withdrawal of application for the candidate, who does not want to appear at the Examination, he/she may withdraw his/her application.

Important Instructions to Withdraw

1. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully before filling up the request for withdrawal of application.

2. The Commission has provided the withdrawal to those candidates who do not want to appear at this Examination.

3. Candidates are advised to provide the details of registered application with registration-id which was completed and submitted finally. There is no provision for withdrawing of incomplete applications.

4. Before making the request for withdrawal, candidate must ensure that they have access to the registered mobile number and email-id which were provided by them at the time of submission of application. Separate OTPs will be sent by the Commission on the registered mobile number and email-id. Request for withdrawal will be accepted only after it is confirmed by validating the OTP details sent on candidate’s mobile and email-id. Such OTPs will be valid for 30 Minutes only.

5. Request for generating OTP for withdrawal of application will be accepted only within scheduled time.

6. If a candidate has submitted more than one application form then the higher registration-id of Application (latest) will be considered for withdrawal and all earlier applications will be treated as cancelled automatically.

7. After the final acceptance of the request for online withdrawal of application, the candidate must print the authenticated receipt. Once application has been withdrawn by the candidate, it cannot be revived in future.

8. UPSC has no provision to refund any fee amount paid by candidates, so in case of successful withdrawal of application the fees will not be refunded.

9. On successful completion of withdrawal of application, an autogenerated email and SMS will be sent on candidate’s registered email-id and mobile. In case any candidate has not submitted the request for withdrawal of application he/she may contact UPSC on email-id: upscsoap@nic.in immediately.

10. Candidates are advised not to share the OTPs received on email and SMS to anybody.

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written) a good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.

2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc. Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. Penalty for wrong Answers

THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

4. Unfair means strictly prohibited No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.

5. Conduct in Examination Hall No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. Answer Sheet particulars

(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.

(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately.

10. Method of marking answers

In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response. In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each number, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response. For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below: - Example: (a) • (c) (d)

11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.

Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.

i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)

ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series

iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.

iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below.

v) Append signature in the relevant column.

12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.

Brief particulars of service

Brief particulars of service etc.

Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy

(i) Pay

MSP to the officer is as follows:-

Fixed Stipend for cadet Training: -

* On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

Note: Apart from above many other pay and grants are granted i.e. Qualification Grant, Flying allowance etc.

Promotional Avenues

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Previous years papers

CDS Previous years papers:

From the following links you can download Previous years papers and answer Keys by clicking on that:

Answer key Previous years papers

CDS Answer Key Original: Aspirants can download original answer key provided by CDS by clicking on the following links: